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Old May 29, 2011, 2:48pm   #28
poochie
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schöne erklärung. so ist das ganze ja einfach ;)
im bespiel wär die funktion dann nur in x=0 x=1 0. also F(b(x)) = F(a(x))

ich bin davon ausgegangen dass es sich um das riemannsche integral handelt..

edit: aber für die funktion f(t)=t wird dieses integral ja auch für a(x) = -b(x) gleich null also ist di aussage nicht ganz vollständig oder?

danke herr doktor
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Last edited by poochie; May 29, 2011 at 3:24pm.
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