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Old Jul 26, 2003, 1:05am   #1
twohocks
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Default Makin sure I am not an Idiot

I was recently in a NL game. .25 .5. A decent pot at these low limits is around 6-8 dollars. I had won a couple hands and was on a rush(I do believe in rushes). I get K 6 on the big blind. Player A raises to 1.5, Player B calls. I decide to call because I am on streak. This may be my mistake right here but bear with me. Flop 6 J K. I dont want to be beat by strait so I bet 5$ a fair bet in this game. Player A raises to 7$, Player B calls. I know Player A has been a little loose and player B is a wild man. I put Player A on A K and Player B on strait draw. I think it over and decide that if they want to gamble lets go. I go all in. I feel very good about having the best hand. They both call. I was right in both instances Player A had A k and no problem. Player B caught a strait on 4th street with a 9 (he had Q 10).
Was I right to get my chips in there or should I have waited to see if the 9 would fall. It was a chance at 80$ and most times I would win. Just wondering if this was a real poor play or just a bad beat. Thanks for your oppinions.
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Old Jul 27, 2003, 1:45am   #2
TwoGun
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Yes, given those hands, you were correct to go all in. however, you should not be playing with a k6
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Old Aug 07, 2003, 5:01pm   #3
PokerKid
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Not considered a bad beat.

"To qualify for the "bad beat" normally a player must lose with Aces full of tens or better, in several poker rooms the loser must have Aces full of Kings or quads beaten. And in most instances, both hole cards must play if playing Texas Hold'em." from: www.badbeatjackpot.com

or

"(n phrase) The situation in which a strong hand is beaten by a longshot or improbable hand, particularly when the holder of the eventual winning hand should never have been in the pot in the first place (if playing correctly, at least by the reckoning of the loser of the pot)." from:www.planetpoker.com

Basically - If you have a huge hand early (Full House/Quads after the flop) and someone plays their hand incorrectly, chases cards and hits it at the River to beat ya!

In this hand, player A & B still had a hand coming and could make one at the Turn. And your hand was very beatable at the flop and wasn't a "strong" hand.

Back to hand:

With those bets, why didn't you put anyone on KJ?

That should have been the deciding factor to fold your K6 which would be 2nd best hand if someone is raising your bet and isn't showing any weakness even before preflop... Player A (albeit loose) would probably call since he raised twice and will probably go all the way (but you still put him on a strong starting hand). And if you put him on AK you're still risking your top two pair against a better two pair if an A falls at the turn or river.

I think your hand deserved play after the flop. But I'm not so sure it deserved an ALL IN based on A's betting pattern. Did you want them to call? Was your goal for A&B to fold after an ALL IN or did you want to muscle em out? If A was loose and had more money than you, then he'd probably call. (what do you think TwoGun)

But then again, you were on a streak and streaks can mean everything!
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Old Aug 07, 2003, 11:46pm   #4
twohocks
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You make several good points. I felt I knew what the other players had. If they had A J I think they would have bet more or raised. Your are right what I really wanted was to get them out as I knew my hand was not that strong even though I was in the lead. Your best point is why all in if I know the loose player is gonna call and I may be easily beat. You are right I should have called or probably a med raise. In conclusion I AM AN IDIOT. Oh well maybe not any more.
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Old Aug 08, 2003, 12:33am   #5
PokerKid
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Who isn't an idiot. I've played A3 only to be beat by an A4!!!
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