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Old Jun 29, 2004, 4:02pm   #1
One-Eyed Jack
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Default 2 All-in Hands to Discuss

I have 2 hands from my home poker game that I wanted to get some feedback on.
We have 8 man, $100 buy-in NL Hold'em ring game every Monday night. Blinds are $1/$2

1st Hand:
30 minutes in. I have about $130 in chips.
Middle position raises 1x BB to $4.
1 other caller.
I am on SB. I have As 10s.
I call.
Flop comes: Js 7s 4s
Great. I flop the nuts.
I bet $10.
Middle position player thinks about it and goes all-in for $80.
Other player folds.
O.K. Obviously, I am leading this hand right now. I didn't put him on a flush. I have to assume he hit a set and was hoping to draw out on a boat based upon his comments when flush hits the board.
So, I call $70.
Turns comes a blank. River comes a 4.
He is holding pocket fours - hitting four of a kind on river.
It's a bad beat, but not that horrible. I was only a 65% chance to win the hand after the flop.
I guess I am trying to figure out whether my call for most of my chips was the right call considering I was definitely ahead at the flop, but didn't have an overwhelming lead. I just couldn't see me laying that hand down.

Second hand:
After being knocked down to $40 in chips, I work back up to $90. Late in evening. I am on BB.
Couple of limpers.
Late position player (tight, aggressive) bets $15.
SB folds.
I am holding Ad Ah.
This player is rather tight and I had to assume his $15 represented high pair. He was not the type to try and steal blinds that aggressively.
I also have reputation for tight, aggressive. So...I re-raise $25. I am hoping he sees that he is beat and lays his hand down. He thinks and decides to call.
Flop comes 2 5 9 rainbow.
Half my chips are already in. I had to put him on J's, Q's, or K's. Maybe AK, but I don't see him calling my re-raise with that hand.
So...I go all in for $50 remaining hoping to push him out. He quick calls.
He flops over set of 9's.
I don't hit any of my 2 outs.

I had him dominated before the flop - 88% favorite. However, I couldn't put him on pocket nines, not considering the tight player he is and the re-raises before the flop.

I can't help but feel that I played both of these hands correctly - I just got a little unlucky and lost a good bit of money doing so. Any thoughts on how to play both of these differently?
Thanks-
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Old Jun 29, 2004, 4:35pm   #2
packattack88
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The only thing I can think of doing differently was on the second hand when you had AA, I think that anytime someone raises to $15 in a $1/$2 game, I would definitely put them all-in.
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Old Jul 01, 2004, 4:17pm   #3
One-Eyed Jack
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In looking back over my post, I would definitely have to agree with you PackAttack. Even though I re-raised $20 before the flop, he had to be more 60% sure that he was beat to lay his hand down. In retrospect, I wish that I had put him to a decision to push all his chips in after his open bet.
About the only cards that could have scared me on the flop were a K or a Q as I was putting him on a big pocket pair. Once again, I don't think my flop play was the mistake, but rather I should have shoved 'em all-in before the flop.
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