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Old Sep 11, 2006, 3:40pm   #1
golgot_51
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Default A question from a noob!

Hi guys!

I am starting to play hold'em on internet and i have just one question to ask...
I play on Everest, and sometimes, we have to share the final amount like in these 3 cases after. Could you explain me why ( i have to precise that there is no all in on these hands).
Thank you very much and sorry for my bad english ( i am french...)

Q-Q-8-8-A win 585$ (Q and 8 from his closed hand)
A-A-Q-10-8 win 320$ (A from his closed hand)

7-7-7-10-10 win 545$ (7-10 from closed hand)
7-7-7-A-K win 680 (7-A from closed hand)

3-3-3-Q-J win 450$ (3-Q from closed hand)
7-7-3-3-A win 80$ (7-A from closed hand)

It is unbelievable because each time, one of the two hand is totaly better than the other, isn't it?
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Old Sep 11, 2006, 4:14pm   #2
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I think what is happening is the losing player is getting money back out of the pot that the other player was unable to cover.

For example, if you and I are playing poker, and I put $200 in the pot with KK. You choose to call with AA, but you only have $100 on the table. (Assuming you win), after the pot is over, you will win $200 out of the pot, and I will get $100 back (from the amount that you were not able to cover).

Hope that helps explain why the losing players appear to be winning money on those hands. They're really just getting back the amount the other player failed to cover.
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Old Sep 11, 2006, 5:03pm   #3
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He said there was no all in. I am stumped.
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Old Sep 11, 2006, 5:09pm   #4
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In order for pots to be split unevenly:

(a) someone has to be all in or
(b) it has to be a high/low game.

The only thing I can figure is that (a) this is a cash game (playmoney hopefully) and therefore (b) they weren't turning over the cards when there was an all in (typically cards are only turned over in tournaments) leading to (c) you not noticing that someone was all in
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Old Sep 12, 2006, 3:54pm   #5
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Thanks for answers!

So i am sure of "no all in" in these examples.

So i think it could be your b) answer, but what do you mean by high/low game?

Thank you.
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Old Sep 12, 2006, 4:10pm   #6
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In some games, such as Omaha Hi/Lo, the total pot is split between whoever has the best hand, and whoever has the worst hand. You would probably have noticed it though, if you were in a game like this. Maybe you can try to locate the hand history file for one of the hands, and post it, so that we could see what exactly is happening?
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Old Sep 12, 2006, 4:11pm   #7
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Hi/lo doesn't make sense either. The split pots would be even.

I'm voting for (c) there is something wrong with the information you're giving here.
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Old Sep 12, 2006, 8:23pm   #8
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ok guys, i will give you an history file, i have been thinking about that all the day and i had not find any answer....
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Old Sep 12, 2006, 10:54pm   #9
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It could be a high-stakes Fixed-Limnit game, such as $250-$500 (hopefully not real money if these issues aren't clear). One or both players bets or calls but doesn't have enough to bet or call the limit amount, so they are "all-in", even though it's not a No-Limit game.
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Old Sep 12, 2006, 11:40pm   #10
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Boilermaker View Post
Hi/lo doesn't make sense either. The split pots would be even.
.
The situation to which I was referring (though I didn't explicitly state it my post) was a situation in which a pot was quartered:

e.g.,

an Omaha/8 hand

Hand 1: A2KK
Hand 2: A2QQ

Board: 3 4 7 9 T

Hand 1 wins 75% of the pot, Hand 2 wins 25% of it.
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